doc_strange: (Default)
doc_strange ([personal profile] doc_strange) wrote2006-05-27 10:10 am

Duty to meet with equal force?

Recently, the Arizona Sun ran a story about the pending trial of a man who shot and killed an alleged attacker. Give it a read - it's short and plaintext. I'll wait...

Done? Ok. As there were no witnesses, I can see how the prosecutors could want to test the facts before a jury. I have no argument actually with that - and there may be facts unrevealed to the press that contradict the defendant's story. For the sake of this discussion, let's set aside the "who is funding the defense" controversy (which I have to say, really is technically irrelevant in our system of justice - How are the defendant's actions changed by what organization subsequently steps up to fund the defense? A defendant should not be judged by who helps fund the defense; that if anything is utterly unjust.).

That aside, there are some peculiar statements in the article. Here, I think is the big one:
After several warnings for [alleged attacker] to stop, [defendant] shot [alleged attacker] three times in the chest at close range. [defendant] was not harmed, and [alleged attacker] did not have a weapon in his hands at the time he was killed. . . other options were available.

My comments in the... um, comments. Discuss.

[identity profile] docstrange.livejournal.com 2006-05-27 04:13 pm (UTC)(link)
Ok. That sounds to me like the standard law enforcement personnel must meet to use deadly force. But here the author is applying it to the ordinary citizen. I understand why trained LEOs strapped with batons, cuffs, and maybe even body armor would be held to that standard - not to mention that, as it is their duty to confront suspicious persons, having a different standard would create an atmosphere of fear when approached by an LEO (something very unhelpful to the keeping of the peace and the ability of police to do their jobs). I won't argue it makes the job harder (no doubt it does), but it makes the officers plainly the arm of the law, bringing even ***hats who attack them to criminal justice. I also won't argue that, as a reciprocal point of justice, one who attacks an officer acting in the line of duty deserves a harsher penalty.

Ok, then. So here we have the ordinary citizen being held to... being no meaner than the attacker? Let's read that line again: "[alleged attacker] did not have a weapon in his hands at the time he was killed."

The unstated assumption is that, given an attacker, the surprised, attacked citizen should meet the attacker with no more than equal force. Also, that two dogs and a pair of fists are not a real threat to a retired schoolteacher alone on a walking trail. In essence, the attacker not only decides on attacking and the time and place of confrontation, but also on the victim's permitted response. The article, correctly, seems to point out that the gun turned a possible mauling of the victim into the death of the attacker - without the gun, it is possible that no one would have died. That's a key argument in gun control circles, and, well, it is in essence true. The unstated conclusion is that the victim should have dealt with being mauled, rather than killing the attacker. The article says "could have run" right after talking about the dogs that were set upon him. Um. And what if the attacker is faster? At what point can the victim use superior force to thwart an attack? How about when the attacker charges with raised fists despite knowing their victim has a firearm?

The equal force argument misses, for example, that it cedes control of attack situations to the attacker. For the duration of the attack. After their choice to attack or approach and threaten imminent harm ("assault"), the attacker is then given the choice of weapon and level of violence in which to engage: "[alleged attacker] did not have a weapon in his hands at the time he was killed." They retain the element of surprise throughout. If the attacker grapples and starts losing the fight... the attacker can pull a knife. I guess then, after getting stabbed in the kidney, the victim is then permitted to pull a knife. WTF?

That just seems peculiar to me. Backwards. I understand why this one's going to trial (no witnesses to support the defendant's statement that he was attacked despite displaying the firearm), but the notion that the victim of an assault must not respond with a level of force capable of preventing bodily harm to himself... and can't use that force if the attacker is "only" going to beat them to a pulp and set dogs on them.... Peculiar.

[identity profile] feonixrift.livejournal.com 2006-05-27 06:44 pm (UTC)(link)
Thank you, for clearly articulating why I feel the current regulations amount to disallowing self defense. If I, as someone small and fairly weak, must use "equal" force against large strong people who already have situational advantage, I'm toast unless my level of skill is vastly above theirs.

[identity profile] docstrange.livejournal.com 2006-05-27 10:18 pm (UTC)(link)
It's taken me a while to put the unstated argument into words: That a victim must accommodate an attacker's level-of-force expectations, letting the attacker determine the limits of defensive response. I feel that once the attacker crosses a certain line, the target of aggression has a basic human right to prevent immanent harm to self or others. I am willing to hear arguments about that line in terms of aggressive behavior, but I don't think it requires display of a deadly weapon. Every day people maim or beat others to death with bare hands or a convenient stick or rock, let alone with a knife or other weapon pulled only when the tide turns against them. Attackers have no right to get in a few licks on "fair fight" terms.

I still think this case, having no witness and possibly some contested facts, deserves to go to trial. But if the question is "given a aggressive attacker and even half a possibility of being tackled while running away, should the defendant have chosen other options?" I would say, no.
ivy: (grey hand-drawn crow)

[personal profile] ivy 2006-05-29 02:55 am (UTC)(link)
I agree with most of that. The "where is that line" is arguable, but I think demonstrated intent to cause severe harm to my person is it. (I can't shoot someone for grabbing my butt. I can if they're trying to rape me. I think many people consider deadly force versus rape not okay, which is odd to me.) The person committing the wrong loses some fair-fight rights by deciding to assault someone else.

[identity profile] docstrange.livejournal.com 2006-05-29 07:30 pm (UTC)(link)
Yes - the standard seems to me to be best set at the reasonable impression of imminent bodily harm or death. Then again, I don't think one should be expected to permit one's self to be put into a headlock or other disabling position. My guess, however, is that (in the US) people tend to consider a head-on charge from a crazed but unarmed attacker a more marginal case for armed peronal defense than a rape attempt (which I actually think most would agree is cause for armed self-defense).